98:1 Those who disbelieved among the People of the Scripture and the polytheists were not to be parted [from misbelief] until there came to them clear evidence 2 A Messenger from Allah, reciting purified (i.e., containing no falsehood.) scriptures 3 Within which are correct writings [i.e., rulings and laws].
4 Nor did those who were given the Scripture become divided (Into sects and denominations.) until after there had come to them clear evidence.
5 And they were not commanded except to worship Allah, [being] sincere to Him in religion, inclining to truth, and to establish prayer and to give zakāh. And that is the correct religion.
Koran 98:1-5
According to one hadith, these verses are for Ubai:
Narrated Anas bin Malik:
The Prophet said to Ubai (bin Ka`b): “Allah has ordered me to recite to you: ‘Those who disbelieve among the people of the Scripture and among the idolators are not going to stop (from their disbelief.’) (Sura 98)
Ubai said, “Did Allah mention me by name?”
The Prophet said, “Yes.”
On that, Ubai wept.
Sahih al-Bukhari 4959
Note that Ubai’s name isn’t mentioned in the Koran verse. Obviously, this is a lie by Muhammad.
Muhammad spoke about Allah in the third person. This means this passage is not the perfect words of the perfect Qur’an from perfect Allah. Thus, Allah is false, imaginary, and fictional, which means Islamic doctrine and Islam are nonsensical and false.
OK, Muhammad, we’re still waiting. Remember, Muhammad claims not to be a prophet or messenger, but only a “reminder” with:
So remind, [O Muhammad]; you are only a reminder.
Koran 88:21
Note that Muhammad admits there are people of the “Scripture” and the “polytheists” AKA Quraysh, who “disbelieved”, those who were hypocrite Jews and Christians, and Quraysh who didn’t believe in Judaism, Christianity or in Quraysh polytheism, just like there are hypocrite Muslims who don’t really believe in Islam. But note, Muhammad isn’t the messenger who came to them. After all, he couldn’t come to those people before he was born, or after he was dead, or those people outside of Saudi Arabia. Thus Muhammad, at the very least, is a failure, and at the most, he’s a liar and a deceiver. Plus of course, in all these disbelievers, he forgot to mention the disbelievers of the Zoroastrians and Sabaeans, plus of course, I’m sure there might be just a few atheists around at the time. And, of course, it’s 1400 years later – Muhammad has been dead for a very long time, without preaching to people.
But, Infidel, Muhammad’s message is to you! Muhammad’s message? I thought it was Allah’s message, transmitted through Jibril, to Muhammad, for him to recite to his scribes so that Muslims could remember, and then after his death, and, contrary to Muhammad in Koran 2:79, for Muslims to write down what they remembered, put it in the wrong order (Koran is roughly in order of reverse chapter length mostly), claim it’s “scripture”, then say it’s from Allah?
So woe to those who write the “scripture” with their own hands, then say, “This is from Allah,” in order to exchange it for a small price. Woe to them for what their hands have written and woe to them for what they earn.
Koran 2:79
Notice that Muhammad seems to be referring to another body of written words, not to THIS Koran. Thus from Muhammad’s own words, it’s obvious that Koran is corrupt compared to the:
purified (i.e., containing no falsehood.) scriptures 3 Within which are correct writings [i.e., rulings and laws].
Excerpt, Koran 98:2-3
But, Infidel, it’s the Koran and a translation issue – Muhammad meant this Koran! Muhammad?
Infidel, Allah! So Allah has translation issues? Doesn’t sound competent to me. But, let’s assume that Muhammad Allah meant his Koran. Then note Muhammad’s lies again:
purified (i.e., containing no falsehood.) scriptures 3 Within which are correct writings [i.e., rulings and laws].
Excerpt, Koran 98:2-3
But, Infidel, there are NO LIES! Oh, but there are, as I explain here. Obviously, this is false, as even if Islam, Muhammad, Jibril and Allah were true, the Qur’an has to be in Islamic Paradise, on Allah’s hookah table (or in the mud at the bottom of the dark cave, discarded). So Muhammad’s Allah’s Koran is unavailable to be recited from (scriptures mean writing not singing nonsense from Muhammad). What Muhammad should have said, is something like:
I recite the Qur’an of Allah from memory for you to hear!
Truthful Muhammad (yes I know it’s a contradiction)
Of course, even that has problems, because how does Muhammad recite a book which is not in his presence? Otherwise, any evil person can stand there, pretend to be a messenger of Allah, speak any rhyming lies and nonsense and demand to be given zakāh.
But, Infidel, Jibril brings verses to Muhammad! How nice of you to make clear what Muhammad, Jibril and Allah could not! Truly, Muhammad was the messenger of Jibril, right?
But, Infidel, Muhammad couldn’t read! But others of his time and place could read, like Waraqa, his uncle. Muhammad could have learned from his uncle, to read the words of Allah’s pen.
But, Infidel, Waraqa went blind and died! Obviously, he needed a miracle from Muhammad like Jesus did with the blind man and the deaf man, etc. If Allah was more than a stone idol, Allah’s pen could have taught Muhammad to read and write.
But, Infidel, it’s Allah that teaches reading and writing! Obviously, not to Muhammad. This would be a miracle, right?
But, Infidel, Muhammad had no miracles! But he had an invisible angel, Jibril (who abused and squeezed Muhammad), who could recite in his ear, verses of sublime beauty from Allah, who apparently couldn’t speak to anyone else, showing it was all in Muhammad’s head. If Muhammad had no miracles, then there is no miracle about an “angel” called Jibril, whispering in his ear – this is then the delusion in Muhammad’s head, another personality, a demon, speaking to Muhammad.
Interestingly, the scholars of Tafsir Ibn Kathir, 98:1, have a completely different take on it:
(Wherein are upright Books.)
Ibn Jarir said, “Meaning in the purified pages are Books from Allah that are upright, just and straight. They have no mistakes in them because they are from Allah, the Mighty and Majestic.”
Tafsir Ibn Kathir, 98:1
According to this commentator, there are multiple “Books” from Allah in “the purified pages”.
It’s very obvious that the Koran doesn’t contain the Torah or Bible, only tiny stories, badly copied, repeatedly repeated and rephrased, nonsensically, as it appears. See for yourself, where I’ve collected the stories in the Koran, here: Stories.
Notice as well, that this passage condemns Sharia. Sharia comes from the sayings of Muhammad, recorded LONG after his death and widely condemned by Muslims as forgeries and lies whenever they show Muhammad was violent, a fool or a liar. For example, one hadith has Muhammad advising Muslim men to assault women with:
Men are in charge of women by [right of] what Allah has given one over the other and what they spend [for maintenance] from their wealth. So righteous women are devoutly obedient, guarding in [the husband’s] absence what Allah would have them guard. But those [wives] from whom you fear arrogance – [first] advise them; [then if they persist], forsake them in bed; and [finally], strike them. But if they obey you [once more], seek no means against them. Indeed, Allah is ever Exalted and Grand.
Koran 4:34
You know that assault is wrong. Yet, here is Muhammad ordering Muslims to “strike” women.
But, Infidel, that wasn’t a hadith, that was the Koran! Oh, but the Koran IS a hadith. But if you want another hadith, where beating is accepted, permitted and not thought of as a sin, then:
Umar reported that:
Riyad as-Salihin 68
The Prophet said, “No man shall be asked for the reason of beating his wife”.
You know assaulting women is wrong. Muhammad, Allah and Islam approve of assault upon women, so Islam is wrong, thus Allah is imaginary, Jibril is false and Muhammad was violent, a fool and a liar.
Also notice that Muhammad demands people to: “give zakāh”. How did the Christians and Jews “give zakāh” before Muhammad was born? Obviously, they can’t “give zakāh” before Muhammad was born. How do the Christians and Jews “give zakāh” when they haven’t met Muhammad? Obviously, they can’t “give zakāh” when Muhammad hasn’t met them. How did the Christians and Jews “give zakāh” when they were born after Muhammad died? Obviously, they can’t “give zakāh” when Muhammad died long ago. Thus, Muhammad’s demand to “give zakāh” shows that this passage is for Muhammad’s time and place, an extortionate demand for money, for a false prophet, for a false god, Allah, for a false religion, Islam, without even a false book, Koran.
But, Infidel, it’s for charity! Jews and Christians have been giving charity in money and DEEDS since the start of their religions. Charity, and loving one another, are part of Judaism and Christianity. In fact, charity is NOT part of Islam, as shown here.
But, Infidel, Allah needs money! Thus, you show Allah is Muhammad, Muhammad was poor and made wealthy by his Muslims, seeking riches upon Earth by promising imaginary gardens to his dead followers.
It’s Muhammad that wants you to “give zakāh”, because Allah, the stone idol, doesn’t provide. It’s Muslims that provide for Muhammad, showing that Allah is a stone idol, of no power or worth:
The best replacement for this passage is: “”, the empty sentence.
Koran Contradiction 